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Post by SpeakCunningham on Oct 3, 2015 4:40:01 GMT -5
In Hosea 1:2 Scripture reads 2 When the Lord first spoke through Hosea, the Lord said to Hosea, “Go, take to yourself a wife of harlotry and have children of harlotry; for the land commits flagrant harlotry, forsaking the Lord.” (NASB)
Some interpret this as meaning God told Hosea to go take a wife who was already a prostitute. Some even believe she ALREADY had children. The other "debate" on this interpretation is that Gomer was not yet a prostitute but became one after becoming Hosea's wife. Those of this view see the Lord's command as telling Hosea what Gomer will become (a wife of harlotry and will have children of harlotry).
Would love to hear everyone's stance one this question and why?
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Post by Professor C on Oct 3, 2015 5:40:32 GMT -5
I believe that Gomer was ALREADY a prostitute when God told Hosea to marry her. The Hebrew here is ZANUN. A woman of whoredom, is a woman whose business or means of livelihood consists in prostitution. Remember this was to be symbolic of God's view of Israel. Israel (10 tribes) had already fallen away from the LORD after other gods.
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dave
Minor Prophet Casual Member
Posts: 11
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Post by dave on Oct 3, 2015 6:16:54 GMT -5
I believe Gomer was promiscuous woman when Hosea married her and committed adultery while they were married, showing her unfaithfulness to their marriage.
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